Reader says thou shalt have no Slam but Jones'

For the sake of accuracy, when one of your writers talks about the "Grand Slam," why don't they use the correct term?

There is only one Grand Slam, which consists of the British and US Amateurs and the British and US Opens.

The "Grand Slam" the writers keep referring to is the Professional Grand Slam.

Since the original Grand Slam still exists and it is possible for someone to win it - unlikely but still possible - why don't your writers use the correct term?

Mark Woods
Columbus, Ohio

February 9, 2006